Czechoslovakia crisis

From the Wikipedia page:

"In 1938, Adolf Hitler demanded control of the Sudetenland. Britain and France ceded control in the Appeasement at the Munich Conference, ignoring the military alliance Czechoslovakia had with France. In 1939, the remainder ("rump") of Czechoslovakia was invaded by Nazi Germany and divided into the Protectorate of Bohemia and Moravia and the puppet Slovak State. Much of Slovakia and all of Subcarpathian Ruthenia were annexed by Hungary. Poland occupied Zaolzie, an area with Polish minority, in October 1938."

So, in 2014, what's your opinion? Was Hitler justified in claiming the Sudetenland? Should France and the UK have stiffened and stood by Czechoslovakia? 

Sudetenland had belonged to Germany until 1806 and between 1815 - 1866. After WWI, the Treaty of Versailles took Sudetenland from Germany and gave it to Czechoslovakia.

There were also many Germans living in Sudetenland.


Hard question if a country has ownership of a certain piece of land due to that ethnicity living in that place for a long time.

In this case, since Sudetenland was taken from Germany it was the right thing to take it back.

Campaigner wrote:
Sudetenland had belonged to Germany until 1806 and between 1815 - 1866. After WWI, the Treaty of Versailles took Sudetenland from Germany and gave it to Czechoslovakia.

There were also many Germans living in Sudetenland.


Hard question if a country has ownership of a certain piece of land due to that ethnicity living in that place for a long time.

In this case, since Sudetenland was taken from Germany it was the right thing to take it back.

Wrong...

The Sudentenland was never part of Germany... the only thing close to it was the HRE but it still belonged to Bohemia at that point. From 1804 Bohemia (including Sudeten) was part of Austria(-Hungary later). After WW2 the Treaty of Versailles dismantled Austria-Hungary into all the small states and Czechslovakia got formed. Claims got fabricated through funding of Nationalists/Seperatists. He wanted to create a Crisis/Incident to justify a ceding to Germany. -> That's why many people currently draw references with Putin doing the exact same thing in Ukraine.

Walentin wrote:

Campaigner wrote:
Sudetenland had belonged to Germany until 1806 and between 1815 - 1866. After WWI, the Treaty of Versailles took Sudetenland from Germany and gave it to Czechoslovakia.

There were also many Germans living in Sudetenland.


Hard question if a country has ownership of a certain piece of land due to that ethnicity living in that place for a long time.

In this case, since Sudetenland was taken from Germany it was the right thing to take it back.

Wrong...

The Sudentenland was never part of Germany... the only thing close to it was the HRE but it still belonged to Bohemia at that point. From 1804 Bohemia (including Sudeten) was part of Austria(-Hungary later). After WW2 the Treaty of Versailles dismantled Austria-Hungary into all the small states and Czechslovakia got formed. Claims got fabricated through funding of Nationalists/Seperatists. He wanted to create a Crisis/Incident to justify a ceding to Germany. -> That's why many people currently draw references with Putin doing the exact same thing in Ukraine.

Was it fabricated enought that even Chamberlain was in agreement? If I remember correctly, he thought Hitlers claims were justified? Or was he trying to keep "peace for our time"

It was the 'Appeasement-Policy' and part of that was also to sacrifice Allies just to prevent/delay war and this is what happened with Czechoslovakia. I doubt Chamberlain would have called the claims justified.